Finding the after-tax cost of retained earnings (rr)

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The cost of retained earnings is the same as the cost of new common stock less flotation costs. Therefore, it is cheaper for businesses to use retained earnings compared to issuing new common stock.

Retained earnings are already earnings after-tax. Therefore, no tax adjustment is required when calculating the cost of retained earnings.

Using CAPM (Capital Asset Pricing Model)

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In addition to Gordon Model, another way to find the cost of common stock is by using Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM). CAPM allows us to ascertain the relationship between required return and non-diversifiable risk, which is measured by the beta coefficient (b).

Beta coefficient (b) refers to the index that measures non-diversifiable risk (risk which a company cannot eliminate through diversification). It indicates how an asset’s return will react to the changes in the market return, which in turn shows the return on a portfolio of all securities in the market.

Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) is simple, as long as you know the formula and have the information necessary for the formula. The formula is as follows:

rs= Rf+(b*(rm-Rf))

Where:

rs – required return (return on a portfolio or a security)

Rf – risk free rate (e.g. rate on the U.S. Treasury bill)

b – beta coefficient

rm – market return

EXAMPLE:

If Rf (risk free rate) is 5%, beta is 2 and market return (rm) is 12%, the rs (required return or cost of common stock) can be found as follows:

Rs=5%+(2*(12%-5%)

Rs=19%

Test yourself

Assuming we know that beta (company’s market risk coefficient) is 2, market return is 13%, risk free rate of return is 7%, current dividend is $4 and dividend growth over the past 5 years is 5% and the same growth is expected in the future. With CAPM, find the price of the ordinary share.

SOLUTION:

First, using CAPM, we find rs:

rs= Rf+(b*(rm-Rf))

rs=7+(2*(13-7))

rs=19%

Next, we use the Gordon model (P0=D1/(rs-g)) to find the price of the ordinary share:

Po=(4*(1+.05))/(.19-.05)

Po=4.2/0.14

Po=$30

Test yourself:

ABC’s financial manager prepared the following information. The dividend which were paid in the current year was $5. The growth of dividends over the last 5 years were 7% and the same growth of dividends is expected to be in the future. Risk free rate is 8%, market rate is 14% and beta coefficient is 2.

Required: What is the market price of ABC’s ordinary shares?

Solution:

Firstly we need to find required return (rs) with the help of the capital asset pricing model (CAPM).

rs= Rf+(b*(rm-Rf))

rs=8+(2*(14-8))

rs=20

Next, we need to use Gordon model:

Po=D1/(rs-g)

Po=5*(1+0.07)/(0.20-0.07)

Po=5.35/0.13

Po=41.15

The price of the ABC’s ordinary share is $41.15. Note that we determined D1 (dividend within the next period) by taking known D0 (last dividend) and multiplying it by (1+ growth rate).

Gordon model (Constant-Growth Valuation Model)

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The Gordon model is one of the models used in dividend valuation. It is very simple, as long as one knows the formula, which is:

P0=D1/(rs-g)

Also sometimes presented as: P = D/(k-g)

Where:

P0 or P – price of the stock

D1 or D – per share dividend expected at the end of year 1 (at the end of the next financial period)

rs or k – required return for equity investor

g – constant growth rate (expected annual growth of dividends)

Gordon model is usually used for mature companies only since it is assumed that annual growth of dividends remains constant.

It is very important to note that if you are only given the current per share dividend (D0, per share dividend received in this financial period), then you will need to adjust it for the next financial period before you can use it in the Gordon model. To do this you will need to take the current dividend and multiply it by (1 + g). The calculation is as follows:

D1=D0*(1+g)

The original equation of the Gordon model (P0=D1/(rs-g)) calculates the price of the share. However, you are looking for the cost of common stock. Therefore, you need to rearrange equation of the Gordon model as follows:

rs = (D1/Po) + g

Now you just plug in the numbers into the adjusted Gordon equation and you will be able to obtain the cost of common stock. Because common stock is paid out of the after-tax earnings, the tax adjustment is irrelevant.

Sometimes it is necessary to find the growth rate (g) first, before you can calculate the cost of the common stock (rs) with the help of the Gordon model. To do so, you need to find out what was the per share dividends applicable to common stock over the last few years (this information will be given). After obtaining this information, you can calculate the growth rate.

It is best to explain this with an example.

EXAMPLE 1:

Calculating the growth rate, which is necessary for usage of the Gordon model:

The information given below is on per share dividends applicable to common stock over the last few years. You need to find the growth rate of dividends over the given period.

Per share dividends from 2005-2010:

2010 – $4

2009 – $3.96

2008 – $3.76

2007 – $3.27

2006 – $3.25

2005 – $3

Now, by using a financial calculator, you can calculate the growth rate as follows:

PV = -3 (per share dividend in 2005, the first year from which per share dividend information is available)

FV = 4 (per share dividend in 2010, the per share dividend in the current period)

N = 5 (number of periods over which growth occurred)

Find I = it will be 5.92% (this number represents growth of dividends over the given period)

EXAMPLE 2:

Using the growth rate (found above) in the Gordon model:

Now, if we know that the growth of the dividends is expected to be the same into the future and the price of the stock is $55, we can compute the cost of common stock (rs) as follows:

rs=(4*(1+0.0592)/55)+0.0592

rs=0.0770+0.0592

rs=0.1362=0.14%

The cost of common stock also represents the return that investors expect to earn from their shares. If the actual return is less – investors will sell their stock.

Test yourself

The ordinary share is currently sold for $40 each. The growth of shares was 10% over the last 5 years and is expected to be the same in the future. A dividend of $3.5 dollars was paid to shareholders in the current period.

REQUIRED: What is the cost of an ordinary share?

SOLUTION:

We need to use the adjusted Gordon model. In other words, we need to use the formula: rs = (D1/Po) + g

Rs=(3.5*(1+.1)/40) +.1

Rs=(3.85/40) +.1

Rs=19.63%

Note that the dividend is adjusted for growth in the next period by multiplying the current dividend by (1+g).

Finding the specific after-tax cost of common stock (rp)

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Our next concern is to find the after-tax cost of common stock, after attending to finding the after-tax cost of long-term debt and after-tax cost of preferred stock.

Common stock

Common stock, which is also called common shares or ordinary shares, refers to the category of ownership of the enterprise. Common shares generally have voting rights and better potential for appreciation of shares compared to preferred stock.

However, holders of common stock generally do not have fixed dividends and cannot receive dividends until dividends are paid out to preferred stock holders. Moreover, in case of liquidation, holders of common stock only have claim on company’s assets if claims of all creditors as well as holders of preferred stock are satisfied. Therefore, common stock is more risky than preferred stock.

Cost of common stock (rp)

To determine the specific after-tax costs of common stock (rp), you can use two techniques: Gordon model or the CAPM (Capital Asset Pricing Model)

Finding the after-tax cost of preferred stock (rp)

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After discussing the cost of long-term debt, we must now find the cost of preferred stock (after-tax). Preferred stock, which is also called preferred shares or preference shares, refers to the category of ownership that has preferential claim on earnings and assets of the firm, compared to common stock ownership.

The preferential claim is generally manifested in the fact that dividends cannot be distributed to common stockholders until it is distributed to holders of preferred stock first. Further, in case of liquidation, holders of the preferred stock also have preferential claim on assets of the firm, compared to the holders of common stock.

Preferred stock is a hybrid instrument as it has characteristics of both debt and equity. The drawback of preferred shares, compared to the common stock, is lower potential for appreciation of shares as well as absence of voting rights.

Calculating the cost of preferred stock

To calculate the specific after-tax cost-of-preferred-stock all we need to do is to take the preferred stock dividend and divide it by the net proceeds from the sale of the preferred stock (funds received minus flotation cost).

Cost-of-preferred-stock (rp) = Preferred stock dividend/(Funds received – Flotation costs)

Because preferred stock is paid out of the after-tax earnings, the cost-of-preferred-stock is already after-tax.

EXAMPLE:

If Company A issued 9% preferred stock at $100 and the flotation cost is $8, then the calculation will be as follows:

rp = 100*9%/100-8

rp =9/92

rp =9.8%

Test yourself

A corporation is issuing 10% preferred stock that should be sold for $15 each. The business will incur flotation costs of $2 per share.

REQUIRED: What is the cost-of-preferred-stock?

SOLUTION:

10%*15/15-2

1.5/13

The answer is 11.54%

Note: If you struggle with a calculation, read using a financial calculator article for some simple tips on using a financial calculator.

Cost of long term debt

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The first long term source of finance that we consider is the cost of long term debt, which is usually the cheapest of the long-term sources of finance. The majority of long term debt of large corporations is the result of issuing bonds.

Flotation cost

Companies that issue bonds have to take into account the flotation cost, which is the complete cost the company has to incur to issue and sell a security, such as common stock, preferred stock and bonds. This cost reduces the company’s net proceeds from issuing security.

Flotation cost consists of underwriting and administrative costs. Underwriting costs are payment to investment bankers for their services and administrative costs are costs other than the underwriting costs of issuing bonds.

Finding the before-tax cost of long-term debt (rd)

To find the after-tax cost of long term debt, we first need to find the before-tax cost of long term debt (rd). As mentioned above, the majority of long term debts of large corporations are the result of issuing bonds. By using a financial calculator, we can find the before tax cost of a bond (cost of long-term debt).

THE CALCULATION FOLLOWS:

FV – (future value of the bond which refers to its par value, which is also called the face value, and is usually $1,000)

PV – the value of the bond today at which it is sold (after deducting the flotation cost)

PMT – payment on the bond (for example, at 8% coupon interest rate a bond issuer will have to make annual payments of $80 if the par value is $1,000). Payments can also be made more frequently, such as semi-annually or even monthly, but in such a case we need to adjust the amount of payment and number of periods.

For example, if payment is made semi-annually, we will need to divide $80 by 2 and we will need to multiply number of periods by 2.

N – Number of periods

Calculate I – the cost of the bond (for the bond’s issuer it is the cost to maturity of the cash flows, for the bond’s holders it is the return they earn on buying and holding this bond to maturity). Within the context of our discussion, it is also the before-tax cost of long-term debt.

Note that if the net proceeds from the sale of the bond is the same as the face value of the bond than the before-tax cost of long-term debt will be equal to the coupon interest rate. For example, at 8% coupon interest rate, the par value of $1,000 and net proceeds of $1,000 (no flotation costs), the before-tax cost of long-term debt will equal 8%.

Finding the after-tax cost of long-term debt

After we found the before-tax cost of long term debt, we need to find the after-tax cost of long term debt. To do so all we need to do is to multiply the before-tax cost of long-term debt by (1-T), where T stands for the tax rate.

THEREFORE:

ri = rd * (1-T)

EXAMPLE:

If the before-tax cost of long term debt is 10% and tax rate is 28% then the calculation will be as follows:

Ri =10% * (1-.28)

Ri =10% * .72

Ri = 7.2%

Test yourself

You need to calculate the after-tax cost of a 30-year bond. The coupon interest rate is 10%, the par value is $1,000 and the bond is currently selling at $950.

SOLUTION:

PV: -950

FV: 1,000

PMT: 100

N: 30

I: 10.56%

Note: If you struggle with a calculation, read using a financial calculator article for some simple tips on using a financial calculator.

EBIT-EPS Capital Structure Approach

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The EBIT-EPS capital structure approach focuses on finding a capital structure with the highest EPS (earnings per share) over the expected range of EBIT (earnings before interest and taxes).

The reason why we are interested in finding a capital structure which will permit maximization of the EPS over the expected range of EBIT is because it partially helps us to achieve the ultimate objective of the enterprise. The ultimate objective of the enterprise is to maximize shareholders’ wealth by maximizing its stock price. Two key variables that affect stock price are return (earnings attributed to owners of the enterprise) and risk (which can be measured by required return (rs)). This approach explicitly considers maximization of returns (EPS). However, it is important to note that this approach ignores risk (does not explicitly consider risk).

Major shortcoming of the EBIT-EPS approach

The fact that this approach fails to explicitly consider risk is the major shortcoming of this method. As firm obtains more debt (its financial leverage increases), the risk also increases and shareholders will require higher returns to compensate for the increased financial risk. Therefore, this approach is not completely appropriate because it does not consider one of the key variables (risk), which is necessary for maximization of shareholders’ wealth.

Considering financial risk

As per above, the approach does not explicitly consider financial risk. However, when utilizing the approach, financial risk can be considered in two ways:

1) The approach measures financial risk by the financial breakeven point. The higher the breakeven point the greater the financial risk.

2) The approach also measures the financial risk by the slope of the capital structure line. The steeper the capital structure line the greater the financial risk.

EBIT-EPS graph

It is a graphical approach. EPS is plotted on the vertical axis (x-axis) and EBIT on the horizontal axis (y-axis). By connecting the coordinates for different capital structures (different variations of equity versus debt), capital structure lines for each capital structure are graphed.

We will need to represent EBIT-EPS coordinates (capital structure lines) for different capital structures to ascertain at which levels of EBIT which capital structure is preferred. This will allow us to find a capital structure with the highest EPS over the expected range of EBIT.

For the purposes of this article it is sufficient to mention that to find EBIT-EPS coordinates we can assume particular EBIT values (and associated earnings available for common stockholders values) and calculate EPS in line with such values for different capital structures.

The formula to calculate EPS is as follows:

EPS = Earnings Available for Common Stockholders/ Number of Shares of Common Stock Outstanding Another easy way to find one of the EBIT-EPS coordinates is to use the financial breakeven point calculation. Financial break-even point occurs at the level of EBIT (earnings before interest and taxes) at which EPS (earnings per share) equals zero. At this level of EBIT all fixed financial costs are covered. The formula for calculation of the financial break-even point is as follows:

Financial break-even point = I + PSD/1-T

Where:

I – interest charges

PSD – preferred stock dividends

T – tax rate

***

This capital structure approach does NOT allow us to determine the point where weighted average cost of capital is at a minimum and where stock price is at a maximum (where wealth of the owners of the firm is maximized). The approach focuses on maximizing earnings rather than on maximizing wealth. Therefore, although it is helpful to use when analyzing alternative capital structures, the major shortcoming of this approach should be taken into account.

Capital structure decisions

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Capital structure decisions refer to the decisions businesses have to make with regards to the mix of financing they use. The mix consists of debt and/or equity as sources of capital. In other words, it is a structure of the liabilities and equity side of the balance sheet, excluding current liabilities. Enterprises usually try to maintain a certain optimal mix of financing (debt and equity), referred to as the target capital structure.

The modern approach to capital structures is largely influenced by the work of Franco Modigliani and Merton H. Miller. This is also known as the M and M, or MM work. Their work published in 1958 in American Economic Review (June 1958) entitled “The Cost of Capital, Corporation Finance, and the Theory of Investment” suggests that under condition of perfect markets, capital structure decisions do not affect the value of the firm. Any increase in Return on Equity goes hand in hand with increase in risk. Therefore, weighted average cost of capital (WACC) stays constant.

In their later work, Franco Modigliani and Merton H. Miller introduced taxes into the model. Their further conclusion was that if corporate taxes are present then the value of the enterprise will increase continuously as more debt is added to capital structure.

This is possible because debt interest payments are tax deductible. However, it is evident that personal taxes will decrease the advantage gained. As a result, it is still profitable to use debt financing. However, the advantage gained is lessened by the existence of personal taxes versus existence of just corporate taxes.

Theoretically, enterprises can increase the value of the firm by finding the optimum capital structure (mix of equity and debt). The optimum capital structure refers to capital structure decisions according to which the weighted average cost of capital is at its minimum value and, as a result, the value of the firm is maximized.

Therefore, the optimum capital structure is in line with the main objective of the business, which is the maximization of wealth of the owners of the business. However, it is important to note that the optimal capital structure exists only in theory.

Sources of capital

Sources of capital include debt and equity. Equity is further subdivided into preferred stock and common stock. In turn, common stock is even further subdivided into new common stock and retained earnings.

When making capital structure decisions, it is important to keep in mind that generally debt is the least expensive source of capital. This is due to the fact that the lender takes much less risk than suppliers of the equity capital. This is occurs because:

(1) Debt has obligatory scheduled payments. Whereas, equity suppliers, especially in case of common stock, will only be paid when company can afford to do so.

(2) In case of liquidation, lenders have priority claim on assets of the company over equity suppliers.

(3) If firm misses obligatory interest or principal payments, lenders can force the firm into bankruptcy. Therefore, lenders have more power in ensuring that payments will be made on time.

Moreover, interest on debt is tax deductible, which makes it an even cheaper source of capital for the firm. Overall, and as stated above, debt is generally the cheapest source of capital for the firm.

How capital structure decisions affect the risk of a company?

Enterprises deal with three types of risks: financial risk, business risk and total risk. The capital structure directly affects the financial and total risk of the firm.

FINANCIAL RISK – a chance that firm will not be able to meet its financial obligations, which can result in bankruptcy. Financial risk is directly affected by the firm’s capital structure (its mix of debt and equity financing). The more debt the firm uses in its capital structure mix, the higher the financial risk.

BUSINESS RISK – a chance that firm will not be able to cover its operating costs. There are three factors that affect business risk. These are an increase in the degree of operating leverage, revenue instability and cost instability. Capital structure decisions do not affect business risk.

TOTAL RISK – a combination of financial and business risk. Since capital structure decisions affect financial risk, the total risk is also affected.

Risk in Capital Budgeting

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When it comes to capital budgeting, risk refers to probability that project will proof to be unacceptable with net present value (NPV) less than zero or internal rate of return (IRR) less than cost of capital. Particularly, it refers to variability of the returns.

To find the minimum cash inflow level acceptable, we need to calculate breakeven cash inflow.

Breakeven cash inflow refers to the minimum cash inflow that it required for the project to be acceptable. It is calculated as follows:

PV – Initial investment

N – number of periods over which cash inflow is received

I – required cost of capital

Find PMT – breakeven cash inflow

Test yourself:

ABC Corporation have an option to invest in project A which requires investment of $120,000. The duration of the project is 5 years and ABC’s cost of capital is 9%. What is the breakeven cash inflow?

Solution:

We can find breakeven cash inflow of project A with the help of financial calculator.

PV: -120,000

N: 5

I: 10

Find PMT: $31,448.94

The above calculation helps us to determine that the minimum annual cash inflow that will be acceptable for project A is $31,448.94.

Using a financial calculator

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Using a financial calculator is a skill, similar to typing. You just need to know which steps to take and then you need to practice to the point when you feel comfortable with using a calculator.

In all explanations with a financial calculator we will be using an HP 10bll. Other financial calculators are similar, yet we find it easier to work with the HP. Most text books use HP calculators when providing guidance on using a financial calculator, so if you have a different calculator you may need to spend more time learning slightly different calculation steps. Before investing further time, it may be wise to get a universally used calculator.

Before using a financial calculator to make specific calculations such as calculating NPV or IRR, it is important to make sure that you:

1 – Clear the calculator – by pressing second function followed by “C All”

2 – Set calculator for the “END” by pressing second function followed by “BEG/END” and ensuring that the word “BEGIN” is not displayed. Exceptions to this rule occur when it is specifically stated in the problem that cash flows occur at the beginning of the period (for example, at the beginning of the year).

Again, if no sign appears on the display then you do not need to reset it as it is set for “END” by default. If it says “BEGIN” on the display, you need to press second function followed by “beg/end.”

When you set the calculator for the “END” of the period you do that because in the problem you are working with, cash inflow or outflow occurs at the end of the period. If the problem does not state when cash flows occur, you need to assume that it occurs at the “END” of the period.

The majority of calculations will require the “END” setting. If it is by mistake set for “BEGIN” but cash flows occur at the end of the period, then incorrect answers will be generated.

Therefore, it is advisable to keep it set for the “END” at all times as a default and only reset it for “BEGIN” when a calculation requires that to be done. Right after a calculation is completed that requires the “BEGIN” setting, it is important to develop a habit to reset it to the “END”.

In the explanations using a financial calculator, for convenience and clarity purposes, we will generally display explanations of calculations as presented in the example below:

PV: -900 I: 7 N: 5 FV: 1,262.3

When using a HP 10bll financial calculator, or using any financial calculator, you need to first insert the number (number, e.g. -900) and then insert the purpose of the number (e.g. PV).

For example, as per above, you need to press:

900 followed by the minus sign followed by PV

7 followed by I

5 followed by N

Than press FV, and the calculator will display the correct answer

Financial calculators sometimes give false answers. It is advisable to check each calculation 3-4 times to make sure that the same answer is given consistently.

Throughout the site, if you ever struggle with a calculation, always come back to this page for some simple tips on using a financial calculator.

Test yourself

ABC Corporation plans to invest in project C which has an initial investmentof $500,000. ABC’s cost of capital is 8%. The operating cash flows to be generated from the project will be as follows:

End of 1st year: $100,000 End of 2nd year: $300,000 End of 3rd year $250,000

1 – What is the Profitability Index (PI) for project C?

2 – What is the NPV for project C?

3 – Taking the NPV found in the previous step into account, is the project acceptable according to the NPV technique?

4 – Based on the Profitability Index (PI), is project C acceptable?

SOLUTION:

1 – First we need to find present values of the mixed stream of operating cash inflows. Using a financial calculator, we need to take the following steps:

End of 1st year:

FV: $100,000

N: 1

I: 10

Calculate PV: $90,909.09

End of 2nd year:

FV: $300,000 N: 2

I: 10

Calculate PV: $247,933.88

End of 3rd year:

FV: $250,000

N: 3

I: 10

Calculate PV: $187,828.7

Next we need to add up all present values from operating cash inflows to obtain the total PV of operating cash inflows:

= $90,909.09 + $247,933.88 + $187,828.7

Total PV of operating cash inflows = $526,671.67

Next we will follow the equation for Profitability Index (PI):

PI = Total present value of cash inflows/Initial investment

PI=$526,671.67/$500,000

PI=1.05

Therefore, the profitability index (PI) for project C is 1.05.

2 – To find NPV, we follow the formula for NPV:

NPV=Present value of cash inflows – Initial investment

Therefore, NPV for project C = $526,671.67 – $500,000

NPV for project C = $26,671.67

3 – Since NPV is more than zero ($26,671.67), project C is acceptable according to NPV technique.

4 – Since Profitability Index (PI) is greater than 1 (1.05), the project may be considered to be acceptable.

Skills & Knowledge for Driven People

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Tag Business

Finding the after-tax cost of retained earnings (rr)

Using CAPM (Capital Asset Pricing Model)

Test yourself

Finding the specific after-tax cost of common stock (rp)

Common stock

Finding the after-tax cost of preferred stock (rp)

Calculating the cost of preferred stock

Test yourself

Cost of long term debt

Flotation cost

Finding the before-tax cost of long-term debt (rd)

Finding the after-tax cost of long-term debt

Test yourself

Capital structure decisions

Sources of capital

How capital structure decisions affect the risk of a company?

Risk in Capital Budgeting

Using a financial calculator

Test yourself